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  • Which substance initiates the extrinsic coagulation pathway?
  • A CBC shows extreme poikilocytosis with microspherocytes, an elevated reticulocyte count, a positive osmotic fragility test, and red cells lysing upon heating. Which diagnosis is most likely?
  • Which AML subtype is typically associated with strong nonspecific esterase positivity indicating monocytic differentiation?
  • Cord blood findings show HbB 95%, HbP 5%, HbA 0%, HbA2 0%, HbF 0%; Hgb 30 g/L; RBC 1.9 x 10^12/L; MCV 60 fL; what is the presumptive diagnosis?
  • Which condition is a known cause of increased ESR?
  • In CSF analysis, if only the first tube is bloody and subsequent tubes are clear, this pattern supports which diagnosis?
  • Which statement best describes the effect of increased 2,3-DPG production on the oxygen dissociation curve?
  • Which anomaly is defined by bilobed neutrophils?
  • Which red blood cell abnormality is commonly associated with a decreased ESR?
  • Which feature differentiates ALL L2 from ALL L1?
  • In a patient with warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia, the direct antiglobulin test at 37°C is positive. Which autoantibody class is most likely responsible?
  • After a cell lineage has been determined to be neutrophil, which stage follows?
  • A smear macroscopically grainy: what is the likely cause?
  • A smear showing RBC agglutination is most likely to be observed in which condition?
  • Which laboratory pattern best indicates intravascular hemolysis?
  • Which Plasmodium species invades young red blood cells and causes enlargement of the infected cells with singular ring forms?
  • A CBC is performed with Hgb 78 g/L, Hct 0.290/L, RBC 4.0 x 10^12/L, WBC 15.0 x 10^9/L, PLT 85 x 10^9/L, MCV 91 fL, MCH 29 pg, MCHC 329 g/L, RETIC 11%, Peripheral Smear: Schistocytes, helmet cells. Additional Testing: uBIL 42 μmol/L, LDH 1800 U/L, CREA 290 μmol/L. Microbiology isolated E. coli O157:H7. What is the presumptive diagnosis?
  • A CBC is performed with Hgb 72 g/L, Hct 0.290/L, RBC 5.0 x 10^12/L, WBC 11.5 x 10^9/L, PLT 18 x 10^9/L, MCV 83 fL, MCH 28 pg, MCHC 340 g/L, RETIC 10%, Peripheral Smear: Schistocytes, helmet cells. Additional Testing: uBIL 45 μmol/L, LDH 800 U/L, Coagulation Studies: PT 12 sec, APTT 40 sec. What is the presumptive diagnosis?
  • In sideroblastic anemia due to lead poisoning, which iron studies pattern is typical?
  • A heavy smoker presenting with headaches is most likely to have an elevated level of which hemoglobin species?
  • Which statement regarding basophils best describes their role in hypersensitivity?
  • How is the Hgb histogram measured?
  • Which INR value is associated with a mechanical heart valve in place?
  • Which of the following is a reason for decreased ESR?
  • Bernard-Soulier syndrome involves deficiency of which receptor complex?
  • Which of the following causes a leftward shift in the oxygen dissociation curve?
  • How are prothrombin based deficiencies treated?
  • Which diagnosis is most consistent with macrocytic anemia, elevated bilirubin, and a markedly elevated GGT in this patient?
  • Which INR value indicates hemorrhaging risk?
  • In the leukemia case with atypical lymphocytes and a dry tap on marrow, which diagnosis is most likely?
  • Factor V Leiden mutation results in which of the following?
  • Which sequence correctly describes megakaryocytopoiesis?
  • Which PAS-related result is noted in the Burkitt ALL case?
  • A CBC shows anemia with rouleaux on smear, M-spike on electrophoresis, and hypercalcemia. What is the presumptive diagnosis?
  • Hemophilia C treatment option includes which of the following?
  • Which condition is associated with a rightward shift in the oxygen dissociation curve?
  • A smear shows well stained anionic components, but WBCs are poorly stained. What is the most likely cause?
  • What combination makes up the PT test reagent?
  • Where are coagulation factors produced?
  • What is the primary physiological plasmin inhibitor?
  • Which pattern of iron studies is typical for iron deficiency anemia?
  • Which finding on electrophoresis is most characteristic of the multiple myeloma case?
  • What is the purpose of isoelectric focusing in protein electrophoresis?
  • To manually prepare a blood smear in a patient with polycythemia, what adjustment is recommended to the spreading angle?
  • In suspected HIT, what is the recommended management?
  • ALL Burkitt is described with lymphoblasts that are deeply basophilic and vacuolated. Which diagnosis does this support?
  • What pathway protects RBCs from oxidative damage?
  • Which pathway modulates oxygen release from hemoglobin in response to tissue demand?
  • Given Hct 0.400, Hgb 150 g/L, RBC 4.00 x 10^12/L, what is the MCHC?
  • Which stain is used to visualize Heinz bodies?
  • A CBC shows Hgb 82 g/L, Hct 0.290/L, RBC 2.7 x 10^12/L, WBC 12.5 x 10^9/L, PLT 230 x 10^9/L, MCV 88 fL, MCH 29 pg, MCHC 330 g/L, RETIC 12%, uBIL 50 μmol/L, LDH 600 U/L, DAT 4+ at RT, DDAT 3+ C3D, Antibody Screen Anti-P, Urine BLOOD 2+. What is the presumptive diagnosis?
  • A CBC shows severe anemia with macrocytosis and a hypercellular marrow with dysplastic changes in two lineages. What is the presumptive diagnosis?
  • Which sequence correctly describes lymphopoiesis?
  • Acute myeloid leukemia is defined by blasts above what percentage in marrow or peripheral blood?
  • Which MCHC value is within the normal range (approximately 320-360 g/L)?
  • Which plasma protein is known to promote rouleaux formation and elevate ESR?
  • Which statement about plasmin is correct?
  • In the PLT histogram, platelets are measured directly from which size range?
  • Given Hct 0.400 L/L and RBC 4.00 x 10^12/L, what is the MCV?
  • What is the reference range for prothrombin time (PT)?
  • Which chromosomes are defective in alpha thalassemia and beta thalassemia, respectively?
  • Which situation is associated with a smear pale RBCs and dark basophilic components due to staining issues?
  • For a patient with mild cyanosis, which abnormal hemoglobin is commonly found in elevated amounts?
  • A CBC shows anemia with burr-like red cells on smear and dark inclusions on supravital stain. Urine shows blood in the 3+ range and LDH is elevated. DAT is negative. Which condition is most likely?
  • A CBC shows HbC predominance on electrophoresis with rectangular crystals on smear. What is the presumptive diagnosis?
  • In the setting of reticulocytosis with anemia, which statement is generally true?
  • ALL L1 presents with lymphoblasts and a hypercellular marrow with >25% lymphoblasts, MPO NEG, Sudan Black NEG, and PAS POS. Which diagnosis is most consistent?
  • What is the effect of heparin on antithrombin activity?
  • A patient has anemia with severely reduced eGFR (8 mL/min) and elevated creatinine. What is the most likely presumptive diagnosis?
  • Which of the following causes a rightward shift in the oxygen dissociation curve?
  • What is the reagent in the PT test?
  • A CBC shows echinocytes (burr-like cells) and supravital staining reveals multiple dark inclusions attached to RBC membranes. LDH is elevated and DAT is negative. Which enzyme deficiency is most likely?
  • Which anticoagulant is used for routine coagulation testing?
  • Poor staining of WBCs with RBCs well stained is most likely caused by not enough time in the stain. Which option best reflects this cause?
  • Which pathway is the main energy source in cells like red blood cells?
  • In monopoiesis, which sequence correctly describes the progression?
  • Which assay is used to titrate factor VIII inhibitors?
  • Golf-ball inclusions on Brilliant Cresyl Blue smear with HbH on electrophoresis indicate which diagnosis?
  • In the basophil lineage, which cell becomes mast cells in tissue?
  • A manual spun hematocrit yields a falsely increased result due to which factor?
  • Which statement best describes how the Hgb histogram is measured?
  • What indicates bacterial meningitis?
  • Which diagnosis fits neutropenia with hypogranulated and hyposegmented neutrophils and abnormal myeloid maturation on marrow with high ferritin?
  • Which myeloproliferative neoplasm is most likely with extreme thrombocytosis (platelets ~1180 x10^9/L) and JAK2 positivity with BCR-ABL negative?
  • Aspirin’s effect on hemostasis is to which of the following?
  • Monocytes typically range in the CBC as?
  • What is hydrodynamic focusing in flow cytometry?
  • Which AML subtype is strongly associated with disseminated intravascular coagulation at presentation due to promyelocyte proliferation?
  • A case with >20% blasts, Auer rods, and t(8;21) positive. Which AML subtype is this?
  • Which CSF profile is most characteristic of chronic bacterial meningitis?
  • Which anomaly presents with blue cytoplasmic inclusions resembling Doehle bodies but larger?
  • What indicates a parasitic or fungal infection?
  • What is the purpose of the mucin clot test?
  • Based on the CBC findings including basophilic stippling and ringed sideroblasts on Prussian Blue staining, what is the presumptive diagnosis?
  • If a CSF sample is yellow, what does this indicate?
  • A bone marrow assessment shows ringed sideroblasts comprising more than 15% of erythroid precursors. What is the presumptive diagnosis?
  • Dark staining coarse cytoplasmic granules in neutrophils are characteristic of which anomaly?
  • A CBC shows HbS 39%, HbA 60%, HbF 1% with a positive Sickledex result. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  • Which test result is negative in the ALL L1 case?
  • For a patient on anticoagulant therapy, the INR range is typically?
  • If a body fluid sample appears milky, what is this indicative of?
  • Hemophilia B treatment uses which product?
  • Which of the following is a granulocyte?
  • Basophils are cells that become mast cells and participate in allergic reactions. What is their typical concentration range?
  • Which erythroid precursor is described as having a peripheral nucleus?
  • In the RBC histogram, RBCs are measured directly from which size range?
  • What is the identity of plasma cells?
  • Which laboratory pattern most strongly supports alcoholic liver disease as the cause of anemia in these results?
  • Which of the following is NOT used to treat high titre inhibitors (>5 BU)?
  • A CBC shows atypical B-lymphocytes and positive Monospot; EBV serology is positive. What is the presumptive diagnosis?
  • In Factor V Leiden, which coagulation factor remains active longer due to resistance to activated protein C?
  • How is hemophilia A treated?
  • In the cyanmethemoglobin method, at what wavelength is the hemoglobin measured spectrophotometrically?
  • What inhibits fibrinolysis?
  • A patient with t(15;17) PML-RARA fusion and elevated D-dimer has acute leukemia with abrupt coagulopathy. Which AML subtype is diagnosed?
  • Which combination of additional testing supports the erythroleukemia diagnosis?
  • Which peripheral smear finding is most characteristic of megaloblastic anemia?
  • A monocytic leukemia case with t(9;11) translocation and CD14/CD64 positivity. Which AML subtype is this?
  • LMWH is monitored with which assay?
  • Which test result is most diagnostic for pernicious anemia when evaluating megaloblastic anemia?
  • Based on ferritin elevation and abnormal erythrocyte maturation with a high ferritin and low TIBC, what is the presumptive diagnosis?
  • A CBC shows bite cells on the smear and supravital staining revealing dark membrane inclusions. LDH is markedly elevated and DAT is negative. Which enzyme deficiency is most likely?
  • Which AML subtype is classically associated with Auer rods on smear and high myeloperoxidase activity?
  • What is the earliest myeloid precursor before cell lineage distinction?
  • During erythropoiesis, which stage shows a pink-tinged cytoplasm and a condensing nucleus?
  • In alpha-thalassemia major (hydrops fetalis), which adult Hb type is absent on cord blood electrophoresis?
  • In flow cytometry, what does side scatter measure?
  • What is the purpose of citrate in blood collection for coagulation testing?
  • A patient presents with >20% blasts; CD34 positive; myeloperoxidase negative; Sudan Black negative. Which AML subtype is most consistent?
  • In CML, the leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) score is typically:
  • ALL L2 is described with CBC showing WBC 46 x 10^9/L and marrow with >25% lymphoblasts; MPO NEG; Sudan Black NEG; PAS POS. Which diagnosis is most consistent?
  • What is the most common chromosomal defect found in myelodysplastic syndromes?
  • During manual hematocrit testing, which factor can falsely increase the result?
  • Cytogenetics: t(6;9) translocation and nonspecific esterase positivity of 90%. Which AML subtype is suggested?
  • Eosinophils are phagocytic cells that inactivate mast cell products and destroy parasites. What is their typical concentration range?
  • Bernard-Soulier syndrome is due to deficiency of which complex, leading to poor adhesion of von Willebrand factor and thrombocytopenia with large platelets?
  • How is factor X deficiency treated?
  • Which stain is used to demonstrate ring sideroblasts?
  • In the activation order of the extrinsic coagulation pathway, which sequence is correct?
  • To which pathway does Factor X belong in the described activation sequence?
  • What is the appearance of Bernard-Soulier syndrome in platelet function testing?
  • A patient presents with anemia. Peripheral smear shows spherocytes. Direct antiglobulin test is negative. Osmotic fragility is positive. Supravital staining reveals blue-speckled red cells. Which hereditary condition is most likely?
  • What is the APTT reference range?
  • Why are lipemic and icteric specimens not suitable for coagulation testing?
  • Which markers are positive by flow cytometry in this case?
  • Which of the following decreases the rate of migration in hemoglobin electrophoresis?
  • Which laboratory findings are typical of disseminated intravascular coagulation?
  • Given Hct 0.400 L/L, Hgb 150 g/L, RBC 4.00 x 10^12/L, what is the MCH?
  • Which cytogenetic abnormality is POS in this case?
  • Which syndrome features giant lysosomal granules in white cells and platelets?
  • Which test is used to detect lupus anticoagulants in suspected antiphospholipid syndrome?
  • In a healthy adult, what is the typical distribution of major hemoglobins?
  • A smear macroscopically very blue: what could cause this?
  • Which enzyme acts on fibrin clots and fibrinogen to produce fibrin degradation products like D-Dimer?
  • A patient has 30% blasts in the bone marrow. What is the presumptive diagnosis?
  • What is the correct activation order for the common pathway?
  • Which observation is most consistent with aplastic anemia when considering a patient with anemia and low reticulocyte response?
  • Which methodology is used for hemoglobin measurement with Drabkin's reagent?
  • A patient presents with severe anemia (Hgb 62 g/L), macrocytosis (MCV 108 fL), thrombocytopenia (PLT 55 x 10^9/L), a hypercellular marrow with erythroid precursors, and testing showing Periodic Acid Schiff POS and Myeloperoxidase POS. The peripheral smear shows myeloblasts. Which diagnosis is most consistent?
  • Which antigens are identified in T-cell CLL?
  • Which staining result is positive in the ALL L2 case?
  • Based on the CBC and electrophoresis showing HbS predominance with no HbA and a sickled peripheral smear, what is the most likely diagnosis?
  • In essential thrombocythemia, which smear feature is commonly observed?
  • A patient shows lower than normal cell counts. What is a likely cause?
  • Which diagnosis is supported by high hemoglobin, low erythropoietin, and JAK2 mutation positivity?
  • Which statement best describes the management priority in DIC?
  • Which combination of iron studies best fits iron deficiency anemia?
  • Overdose on heparin is reversed with which agent?
  • Which cell stage is the earliest recognizable in erythropoiesis, characterized by a round nucleus with visible nucleoli and chromatin?
  • In flow cytometry, hydrodynamic focusing prevents which artifact?
  • Why must hemolyzed specimens be rejected for coagulation testing?
  • Which molecule is the primary plasminogen activator?
  • In a healthy adult, what is the typical upper limit for Hgb A2 fraction?
  • Lupus anticoagulants are antibodies that inhibit the APTT reagent and are identified using which test?
  • Which diagnosis is suggested by tear-drop (dacrocytes) RBCs and a dry tap with bone marrow fibrosis and a positive JAK2 mutation?
  • Peripheral blood smear shows Howell-Jolly bodies and acanthocytes. What is the most likely interpretation?
  • Which cell is described as a polychromatic erythrocyte during erythropoiesis?
  • How are FVII deficiencies treated?
  • How is hemophilia B treated?
  • What pathway maintains Hgb in a reduced state?
  • In the CLL case, which smear finding is reported?
  • Which inclusion is commonly seen in patients after splenectomy?
  • A CBC shows anemia with spherocytes; DAT is 4+ at 37°C; LDH elevated; uBIL elevated. Which diagnosis is most likely?
  • A CBC with WBC markedly elevated and BCR-ABL positive. Which diagnosis is most likely?
  • An end of feathered edge shows increased blue spicules; what does this indicate?
  • HIT is characterized by which of the following?
  • For citrate-specimen accuracy, what is the required maximum platelet count?
  • What cell morphology is characteristic of Sezary syndrome?
  • In methemoglobinemia, the iron in hemoglobin is in which oxidation state?
  • Which electrophoresis pattern is most indicative of beta-thalassemia major?
  • What is the activation order of the intrinsic coagulation pathway?
  • What is the normal red cell distribution width (RDW) range, and what does an RDW above 22% indicate?
  • What is the primary plasminogen activator?
  • What reagent is used in APTT testing?
  • Which parasite resembles Plasmodium falciparum and has small ring-like protozoa in red blood cells?
  • In a patient being treated for a urinary tract infection caused by E. coli who presents with cyanosis, which abnormal hemoglobin is likely increased?
  • Which finding best supports anemia from malignancy in this patient data set?
  • Which antibody specificity is commonly associated with cold agglutinin disease?
  • Which test results strongly support hairy cell leukemia in the second case?
  • Which statement correctly describes the amino acid substitutions of HbC and HbS relative to normal adult hemoglobin?
  • A patient presents with monocytosis and hypercellular marrow showing monocytic and granulocytic dysplasia; BCR-ABL negative. Which diagnosis fits best?
  • Rouleaux formation on a smear is commonly associated with which condition?
  • Which anomaly features bilobed neutrophils commonly seen in myelodysplasia or leukemia?
  • What is the Rule of 3 relationship between Hgb, Hct, and MCHC?
  • Heparin therapy is monitored by which of the following?
  • Which treatment is used for prothrombin-based deficiencies?
  • A smear macroscopically has holes. This is caused by what?
  • What is the principle behind high-performance liquid chromatography (HPLC)?
  • G20210A mutation occurs in which gene?
  • Which cell type is described on the peripheral smear in this case?
  • Which antigens are identified in B-cell chronic lymphocytic leukemia?
  • What indicates FXIII deficiency?
  • Which combination of findings best supports a diagnosis of sickle cell disease?
  • A CBC shows RBC agglutination and a positive direct antiglobulin test at room temperature with an anti-I specificity on the antibody screen. Which diagnosis fits best?
  • In a healthy newborn, hemoglobin F makes up roughly what proportion of total hemoglobin?
  • Which factor is the most important antithrombotic factor?
  • What pathway modulates the release of O2 based on tissue demand?
  • During manual hematocrit testing, which factor can falsely decrease the result?
  • The platelet histogram has a fitted curve spanning which range?
  • What is the purpose of an ESR test?
  • In the management of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which approach is central?
  • A smear shows dark stained cationic components and pale RBCs. Which staining issue most likely explains this?
  • Which diagnosis is most consistent with thrombocytopenia and dysmaturation of megakaryocytes on marrow?
  • For a patient with severe anemia, how should the smear angle be adjusted?
  • What is the purpose and method of preparing a thick and thin malaria blood smear?
  • Which syndrome is characterized by giant lysosomal granules in granulocytes, macrophages, and platelets, with partial albinism and recurrent infections?
  • Fibrinogen-based deficiencies are treated with which of the following?
  • What is the FVIII:C inhibitor?
  • Basophilic stippling on a peripheral smear can be seen in lead intoxication and which hereditary disorder?
  • The FVIII:C inhibitor is best diagnosed by which description?
  • In a patient with HbSC disease and marked hypertriglyceridemia, what artifact may affect the CBC results?
  • Which electrophoresis pattern is most indicative of beta-thalassemia trait?
  • Which staining method is commonly used to identify malaria parasites on blood smears?
  • An MCHC value above 360 g/L could indicate the presence of which cell type?
  • Which Plasmodium species invades older red blood cells and characteristically forms a band form in trophozoites?
  • The most common inherited bleeding disorder von Willebrand disease is often treated with which agent?
  • What is the appearance of Glanzmann's thrombasthenia in platelet function testing?
  • A CBC shows severe pancytopenia with Hgb 68 g/L, WBC 1.2 × 10^9/L, platelets 15 × 10^9/L, and bone marrow described as hypocellular with a dry tap. What is the presumptive diagnosis?
  • Which factors are vitamin K dependent?
  • A CBC is performed with Hgb 60 g/L, Hct 0.290/L, RBC 3.0 x 10^12/L, WBC 18.0 x 10^9/L, PLT 40 x 10^9/L, MCV 91 fL, MCH 29 pg, MCHC 329 g/L, RETIC 10%, Peripheral Smear: Schistocytes, helmet cells, burr cells. Coagulation Testing: PT 40 sec, APTT 65 sec, TT 35 sec, D-dimer >500 ng/mL. Additional Testing: uBIL 80 μmol/L, LDH 700 U/L. What is the presumptive diagnosis?
  • A CBC shows elliptocytes. Direct antiglobulin test is negative. Osmotic fragility is negative. Which diagnosis is most likely?
  • What are plasma cells?
  • Where do T cells differentiate compared to B cells?
  • When must testing occur for coagulation-based specimens?
  • Based on the CBC and iron studies, what is the presumptive diagnosis?
  • In the disseminated intravascular coagulation case, which red blood cell morphology was observed alongside schistocytes?
  • G20210A mutation leads to which of the following?
  • The normal adult lymphocyte count falls within which range?
  • In a patient with megaloblastic anemia, Schilling test shows B12 detected in urine only after intrinsic factor (IF) is given. What is the presumptive diagnosis?
  • Which statement best describes the action of Thrombin Activatable Fibrinolysis Inhibitor?
  • In the eosinophil lineage, which stage is described as having an indented nucleus with orange granules?
  • What is the normal reference range for MCV indicating normocytic erythrocytes?
  • In the WBC histogram, which size threshold is used to measure white cells?
  • What smear feature is described in the Burkitt ALL case?
  • Which diagnosis is best supported by thrombocytopenia with giant platelets and abnormal megakaryocytic maturation on bone marrow with high ferritin?
  • Which pathway protects RBCs from oxidative damage?
  • In the WBC histogram, which threshold is used to capture larger cells?
  • The CBC pattern shows neutrophilia with toxic granulation and elevated CRP, with LAP markedly elevated. Which diagnosis is most likely?
  • What does forward scatter primarily measure in flow cytometry?
  • Which staining result is positive in the ALL L1 case?
  • In the RBC histogram, which component is excluded from direct measurement?
  • Which electrophoresis pattern is consistent with hemoglobin C disease?
  • Which agent is used to bypass inhibitors in the management of low-titre FVIII inhibitors (<5 BU)?
  • Why can't EDTA be used for coagulation testing?
  • Which malaria parasite is classically associated with Schuffner's stippling in infected RBCs?
  • Punch out crenated RBCs with refractory blotches; what artifact is this and how to prevent?
  • At what temperature are coagulation specimens kept?
  • What is the primary purpose of hemoglobin?
  • Which smear finding is most characteristic of hereditary elliptocytosis?
  • The most common inherited bleeding disorder is von Willebrand disease. What is a typical treatment?
  • Which of the following is a non-infectious condition that can raise an ESR?
  • What is the principle behind impedance-based cell counting?
  • A CBC shows Hgb 104 g/L, WBC 68 x 10^9/L with lymphocytosis and smear showing smudge cells. Bone marrow is dry tap with fibrosis and DAT is positive. What is the presumptive diagnosis?
  • Which smear finding is most characteristic of marrow fibrosis on a complete blood count review?
  • What are monocytes?
  • Which is the purpose of identifying elevated D-Dimers?
  • What is the recommended recollection anticoagulant and correction factor when EDTA causes platelet clumping?
  • Which mutation is most commonly positive in hairy cell leukemia?
  • Which diagnosis best fits the data showing HbA 92-96%, HbA2 elevated (4-6%), HbF near zero in a patient with microcytosis?
  • Bite cells and supravital staining revealing dark inclusions are most characteristic of which enzyme deficiency?
  • Glanzmann's thrombocytopenia is characterized by which of the following?
  • A CSF sample shows blood in all tubes after lumbar puncture. This pattern most strongly indicates which condition?
  • Cryoprecipitate provides which of the following components?
  • Macrocytic anemia with low folate and normal VB12; which presumptive diagnosis fits this pattern?
  • What indicates viral meningitis?
  • What are lymphocytes?
  • Which of the following is NOT used to treat low titre FVIII inhibitors (<5 BU)?
  • In the thrombotic microangiopathy cases, which red blood cell fragment is most typically seen on peripheral smear?
  • Which diagnosis best fits the hematologic data showing HbA 96%, HbA2 4%, HbB 20%, HbF 0%, and microcytosis?
  • Which laboratory finding most supports extravascular red blood cell destruction?
  • In monopoiesis, which stage shows a kidney bean nucleus with lacy chromatin and vacuoles in the cytoplasm?
  • How is hemophilia C treated?
  • The fusion gene PML-RARA resulting from t(15;17) is the hallmark of which AML subtype?
  • CBC with low PLT and a smear showing platelets around neutrophils. What causes this and next action?
  • Which diagnosis is suggested by >20% megakaryoblasts with CD41/CD42 positivity and inv(3) on cytogenetics?
  • If a newborn undergoes hemoglobin electrophoresis, what is the typical distribution of Hgb F and Hgb A?
  • A complete blood count shows anemia and the bone marrow contains 15% blasts, with peripheral smear showing hyposegmentation. What is the presumptive diagnosis?
  • In neutrophil maturation after lineage commitment, which stage comes after metamyelocyte?
  • In anemia of inflammation, which iron parameter is typically elevated?
  • What indicates chronic bacterial meningitis?
  • In renal disease–related anemia, reticulocyte count is typically which of the following?
  • What pathway is the main source of energy production?
  • Which cell is characteristic of Hodgkin's lymphoma?
  • When a patient becomes hypoxic, which physiological response stimulates increased hemoglobin production?
  • In the iron deficiency anemia case, what does a negative Prussian Blue stain indicate?
  • Which test result would most strongly support hereditary spherocytosis over hereditary elliptocytosis?
  • Which MCHC value indicates hypochromasia (MCHC below normal)?
  • Chédiak-Higashi syndrome features include which of the following?
  • Which Plasmodium species invades both old and young red blood cells, can have multiple ring forms, and is associated with intravascular hemolysis; treatment includes chloroquine or quinine sulfate?
  • Which Plasmodium species invades young red blood cells and shows visible stippling on infected cells?
  • In the Rule of 3, what is the acceptable MCHC range?
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